Are Krishna’s Gita statements exclusivist?
I was both impressed and confused by your response to Sandeep’s question at https://www.thespiritualscientist.com/audio/Religion%20and%20violence.mp3.
(probably due to my sectarian and narrow-minded thinking)
Are Krishna’s statements of exclusivity in BG contextual too? Srila Prabhupada argued against Mayavad very strongly (which based on my understanding encompasses not only Shankacharya but also almost all major religions today). Mayavad bhasya sune hoya sarvanash. How should one understand your point about contextual exclusivity in this statement?
There are practices in other religions (sanctioned by scripture) that are abhorrent to us and there are concepts (like eternal hell) that are totally contradictory.
I do not understand the point of preaching then- if we preach to somebody- please follow your religion- then why ask them to chant Hare Krsna or read the Bhagavad Gita at all? Why emphasize the importance of the guru-sisya parampara?
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