Why is the irreligious West prosperous and religious India poor?
From Prathamesh P:
Since material prosperity is proportional to good karmic credit, why do we see that the people in west are more materially prosperous even while committing much more sinful activities compared to the people of India, who have been performing relatively much less sinful activities because of following Vedic doctrines? Kindly elaborate on how to understand this point.
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